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Welcome to CardioNerds, where we bring you in-depth discussions with leading experts, case reports, and updates on the latest advancements in the world of cardiology. Tune in to expand your knowledge, sharpen your skills, and become a true CardioNerd!
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In this episode, the CardioNerds (Dr. Dinu Balanescu, Dr. Billy Joe Mullinax, and Dr. Akiva Rosenzveig) take a deep dive into the world of the surgical management of pulmonary embolism (PE) with faculty expert, Dr. Joshua Goldberg. We start from the pathophysiology of PE and its impact on right ventricular, and thereby left ventricular, hemodynamics. We then discuss the management of high-risk PE and where catheter-based therapies, surgical management and mechanical circulatory support via ECMO find their roles. Dr. Goldberg also provides a historical overview of the evolution of the surgical management of PE. We conclude by briefly discussing the management of chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension (CTEPH) as a long-term complication of PE. Audio editing for this episode was performed by CardioNerds Intern, Dr. Julia Marques Fernandes. NOTE: this episode was recorded before the publication of the 2026 AHA/ACC Acute PE Guidelines. Dr. Dinu Balanescu and Dr. Billy-Joe Mullinax are Co-chairs for the CardioNerds PE Series, developed in collaboration with the PERT Consortium.   Enjoy this Circulation 2022 Paths to Discovery article to learn about the CardioNerds story, mission, and values. CardioNerds Pulmonary Embolism PageCardioNerds Episode PageCardioNerds AcademyCardionerds Healy Honor Roll CardioNerds Journal ClubSubscribe to The Heartbeat Newsletter!Check out CardioNerds SWAG!Become a CardioNerds Patron! <hr class="wp-block-separator has-text-color has-vivid-cyan-blue-color has-css-opacity has-vivid-cyan-blue-back
This episode is part of our comprehensive Decipher the Guidelines Series covering the 2025 ACC/AHA/ACEP/NAEMSP/SCAI Guideline for the Management of Patients With Acute Coronary Syndromes. The following question refers to Section 8.2 of the 2025 ACS Guidelines. The question is asked by Johns Hopkins pre-medical undergraduate and CardioNerds Academy Intern Joshua Khorsandi, answered first by University of Wisconsin cardiology fellow and member of the CardioNerds Interventional Cardiology Council Dr. Shikha Jha, and then by expert faculty Dr. Venu Menon. Dr. Menon is the Section Head of Clinical Cardiology, Director of the Cardiac Intensive Care Unit, and Program Director of Cardiology Fellowship at the Cleveland Clinic. He is the Mehdi Razavi Endowed Chair and Professor of Medicine at the Cleveland Clinic Lerner College of Medicine. He was also a member of the 2025 ACS Guidelines writing committee. Question #11 A 58-year-old man with a past medical history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, schizophrenia, atrial fibrillation (on apixaban), and prior tobacco use presents to the emergency department with chest tightness. ECG shows ST elevations in leads II, III, and aVF with reciprocal depressions in leads I and aVL. Emergency coronary angiography demonstrates 100% occlusion of the proximal RCA, and he undergoes PCI. Transthoracic echocardiogram afterward reveals normal LV function with inferior hypokinesis. On day 2, the patient experienced lightheadedness and has frequent melanic stools. His hemoglobin returns at 6 gm/dL (initial hemoglobin 11 g/dL). He undergoes EGD and colonoscopy with successful endoscopic treatment of a small gastric ulcer. True or False: it is reasonable to administer 3-4 units of packed red blood cells for a goal Hb ≥ 10 g/dL. True False Answer #11 Explanation The correct answer is True – it would be reasonable to administer 3-4 units of packed red blood cells for a goal Hb ≥ 10 g/dL. Anemia is common in patients with ACS and is associated with worse short- and long-term outcomes. Anemia is associated with adverse outcomes irrespective of whether the anemia is chronic and due to comorbid conditions, or acute and the result of bleeding related to antithrombotic therapy and/or invasive procedures. The adverse effects of anemia may be due to decreased myocardial oxygen delivery, increased myocardial oxygen demand due to increased cardiac output, or the avoidance of potentially beneficial antithrombotic drugs and/or procedures. Randomized trials in medically ill patients and those undergoing cardiac surgery have demonstrated similar or better outcomes with a restrictive transfusion strategy (targeting a blood hemoglobin level around 8 g/dL) than with a liberal transfusion strategy (targeting a blood hemoglobin level around 10 g/dL). However, randomized trial evidence for populations with ACS suggests possible clinical benefit for a more liberal transfusion strategy targeting a hemoglobin level above 10 g/dL compared with targeting a hemoglobin level above 7 g/dL to 8 g/dL The MINT (Myocardial Ischemia and Transfusion) trial randomly assigned 3,504 patients with acute STEMI or NSTEMI and anemia with a blood hemoglobin level of <10 g/dL (13% with recent bleeding) to a restrictive transfusion strategy (transfusing if the hemoglobin level was <7-8 g/dL) or a liberal transfusion strategy (transfusing if the hemoglobin level was <10 g/dL). Patients were ineligible for enrollment if they had uncontrolled bleeding, were receiving palliative treatment, or were scheduled to
This episode is part of our comprehensive Decipher the Guidelines Series covering the 2025 ACC/AHA/ACEP/NAEMSP/SCAI Guideline for the Management of Patients With Acute Coronary Syndromes. The following question refers to Section 9.2 of the 2025 ACS Guidelines. The question is asked by Johns Hopkins pre-medical undergraduate and CardioNerds Academy Intern Joshua Khorsandi, answered first by University of Wisconsin cardiology fellow and member of the CardioNerds Interventional Cardiology Council Dr. Shikha Jha, and then by expert faculty Dr. Venu Menon. Dr. Menon is the Section Head of Clinical Cardiology, Director of the Cardiac Intensive Care Unit, and Program Director of Cardiology Fellowship at the Cleveland Clinic. He is the Mehdi Razavi Endowed Chair and Professor of Medicine at the Cleveland Clinic Lerner College of Medicine. He was also a member of the 2025 ACS Guidelines writing committee. Question #9 A 74-year-old man with past medical history significant for hyperlipidemia, obstructive sleep apnea, hypertension, tobacco use, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease presents to the emergency department with two days of chest tightness and worsening shortness of breath at rest. He is found to have ST elevations in the anterolateral leads. Emergent coronary angiography demonstrates 90% stenosis of proximal to mid LAD and he is treated with two drug-eluting stents. Transthoracic echocardiograms during hospitalization showed an LVEF of 25% with anterior and apical wall motion abnormalities. He is discharged on dual antiplatelet therapy along with metoprolol, valsartan, spironolactone, SGLT2 inhibitor, and rosuvastatin. At follow-up 3 months later, he reports home BP readings in 90s/50s mm Hg with intermittent shortness of breath and lightheadedness. Blood pressure in the office is 92/54 mmHg. ECG shows normal sinus rhythm with anterior Q waves, a narrow QRS, and no acute ST-segment or T-wave changes. Repeat transthoracic echocardiogram shows an LVEF of 30%. What is the most appropriate next step? A Switch valsartan to sacubitril-valsartan B Consider implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) placement C Consider cardiac resynchronization therapy D Consider additional cardiac rehabilitation sessions Answer #9 Explanation The correct answer is B – consider implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) placement. Generally, arrhythmic complications increase both morbidity and mortality rates in patients after ACS. Patients who present with AMI with reduced LVEF (≤40%) have increased risk of new-onset atrial fibrillation, bradyarrhythmias, and ventricular arrhythmias. Ventricular arrhythmias are common after ACS and more common in patients with reduced LVEF. The MADIT II trial (Multicenter Automatic Defibrillator Implantation Trial) demonstrated a 31% reduction in all-cause mortality (HR, 0.69 [95% CI, 0.51-0.93]) for prophylactic implantation of a cardiac defibrillator in patients with an LVEF ≤30% who were at least 30 days after MI or 3 months after revascularization for MI and had an anticipated life expectancy longer than 1 year. A mortality benefit for prophylactic ICD implantation has also been shown in patients with an LVEF ≤35% and New York Heart Association class II or III HF symptoms, as well as in patients with inducible ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation and an LVEF ≤40%. This patient has an LVEF o
This episode is part of our comprehensive Decipher the Guidelines Series covering the 2025 ACC/AHA/ACEP/NAEMSP/SCAI Guideline for the Management of Patients With Acute Coronary Syndromes. The following question refers to Section 9.1 of the 2025 ACS Guidelines. The question is asked by Johns Hopkins pre-medical undergraduate and CardioNerds Academy Intern Joshua Khorsandi, answered first by Washington University cardiology fellow and member of the CardioNerds Interventional Cardiology Council Dr. Colin Martz, and then by expert faculty Dr. Venu Menon. Dr. Menon is the Section Head of Clinical Cardiology, Director of the Cardiac Intensive Care Unit, and Program Director of Cardiology Fellowship at the Cleveland Clinic. He is the Mehdi Razavi Endowed Chair and Professor of Medicine at the Cleveland Clinic Lerner College of Medicine. He was also a member of the 2025 ACS Guidelines writing committee. Question #8 A 65-year-old female with no significant prior cardiac history presents to the emergency department with 3 days of chest tightness associated with shortness of breath. ECG demonstrates anterior ST-segment elevation with reciprocal depressions. Coronary angiography reveals 100% occlusion of the mid left anterior descending artery. She undergoes PCI of the LAD. Two days later, she develops worsening shortness of breath. Her HR is 115 and BP 95/50. Lungs are clear on auscultation. Cardiac examination is significant for a harsh systolic murmur at the left sternal border with a palpable thrill. Transthoracic echocardiogram showed ventricular septal rupture with left-to-right shunt and Qp:Qs estimated at 2.5:1. What is the best next step? A Continue medical management B Proceed with repeat coronary angiogram and right heart catheterization with shunt run C Percutaneous ventricular septal defect closure D Intra-aortic balloon pump placement and cardiac surgical consultation Answer #8 Explanation The correct answer is D – placement of an intra-aortic balloon pump and CT surgical consultation. Timely reperfusion therapy has reduced the incidence of mechanical complications (ventricular septal rupture, mitral valve insufficiency due to papillary muscle infarction or rupture, or free wall rupture) after AMI. Although occasionally found incidentally, mechanical complications commonly present with recurrent or refractory chest pain or a new murmur accompanied by disproportionate heart failure, cardiogenic shock, or sudden cardiac death on clinical presentation within the first week after an AMI. Medical therapy alone is associated with high risk of early death; definitive surgical correction is frequently the treatment of choice. Mortality rates with surgery are highest in subjects with cardiogenic shock and in those requiring early emergency/urgent intervention after AMI. Observed mortality rates following delayed surgery (>7 days) are lower but patient selection and survivor bias contribute to this observation. The 2025 ACS guidelines give a Class 2a, LOE B-NR recommendation for the use of short-term MCS devices in patients with mechanical complications of ACS for hemodynamic stabilization and bridge to surgery. The availability of temporary MCS devices has led to increasing trends for delayed surgery due to concerns for the initial degree of extensive tissue destruction. Delayed surgical intervention may enable hemodynamic stabilization, lead to recovery of e
This episode is part of our comprehensive Decipher the Guidelines Series covering the 2025 ACC/AHA/ACEP/NAEMSP/SCAI Guideline for the Management of Patients With Acute Coronary Syndromes. The following question refers to Section 8.2 of the 2025 ACS Guidelines. The question is asked by Johns Hopkins pre-medical undergraduate and CardioNerds Academy Intern Joshua Khorsandi, answered first by University of Wisconsin cardiology fellow and member of the CardioNerds Interventional Cardiology Council Dr. Shikha Jha, and then by expert faculty Dr. Venu Menon. Dr. Menon is the Section Head of Clinical Cardiology, Director of the Cardiac Intensive Care Unit, and Program Director of Cardiology Fellowship at the Cleveland Clinic. He is the Mehdi Razavi Endowed Chair and Professor of Medicine at the Cleveland Clinic Lerner College of Medicine. He was also a member of the 2025 ACS Guidelines writing committee. Question #7 A 72-year-old gentleman with past medical history significant for hypertension, hyperlipidemia, type 2 diabetes, and tobacco use is brought to the ED with chief complaint of chest tightness. He is found to have ST elevations in leads V1 to V4 and is taken for emergency coronary angiography, which demonstrates 99% proximal LAD occlusion. During the procedure, he becomes hypotensive (BP 74/55 mm Hg) and tachycardic (HR 122 bpm). Norepinephrine is initiated. Right heart catheterization demonstrates elevated left and right-sided filling pressures with low cardiac index. Besides immediate revascularization, which of the following would be the best next step? A Cannulate for VA-ECMO B Placement of microaxial intravascular flow pump C Administration of intravenous fluid D Placement of an intraaortic balloon pump Answer #7 Explanation The correct answer is B – Placement of microaxial intravascular flow pump. Cardiogenic shock is estimated to occur in approximately 10% of patients with STEMI and is associated with an early mortality rate of 40% to 50%. Several types of devices for temporary mechanical circulatory support (MCS) are available and have been studied in patients with cardiogenic shock, with variable efficacy and increased risk of vascular complications. IABP counterpulsation improves coronary perfusion and reduces cardiac afterload. It is relatively easy to use and has a smaller insertion profile (8 French), which is associated with lower rates of vascular access site complications when compared with other MCS devices. Left ventricular percutaneous microaxial flow pumps unload the LV by draining blood from the LV and pumping it to the ascending aorta. They are dependent on adequate right ventricular function to fill the LV and require adequate oxygenation of blood. VA-ECMO provides both blood flow and gas exchange, providing full cardiopulmonary bypass, but increases afterload. Randomized trials of MCS devices remain challenging to conduct due to relative lack of equipoise on the part of treating physicians, leading to selective patient enrollment and limiting the generalizability of study results. The DanGer-Shock randomized 360 patients presenting with STEMI and cardiogenic shock of <24 hours duration to either microaxial flow pump or standard of care. The trial demonstrated a 26% reduction of all-cause mortality at 180 days (HR, 0.74 [95% CI, 0.55-0.99]; P = 0.04; absolute risk reduction, 12.7%; number needed to treat = 8) compared wi
CardioNerds (Drs. Billy Joe Mullinax, Dinu Balanescu, and Saahil Jumkhawala) discuss the 2026 American Heart Association (AHA)/American College of Cardiology (ACC) multisocietal guidelines for the evaluation and management of acute pulmonary embolism (PE) with Dr. Mark Creager, Director Emeritus of the Heart and Vascular Center at Dartmouth Health, past president of the AHA, and Chair of the Writing Committee for the 2026 AHA/ACC PE Guidelines. Audio editing by CardioNerds intern, Dr. Patrick Pekyi-Boateng. Pulmonary embolism is one of the most rapidly evolving conditions in cardiovascular medicine. The 2026 AHA/ACC multisocietal guideline, endorsed by ten professional societies, is the first de novo comprehensive guideline dedicated exclusively to acute PE in adults. It introduces a new five-category A-E risk classification system, a Class I recommendation for the Pulmonary Embolism Response Team (PERT), updated guidance on anticoagulation and advanced reperfusion therapies, and a structured framework for post-PE follow-up and chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension (CTEPH) screening. This episode walks through all of it, using a high-risk clinical case as the backbone. Dr. Dinu Balanescu and Dr. Billy-Joe Mullinax are Co-chairs for the CardioNerds PE Series, developed in collaboration with the PERT Consortium.   Enjoy this Circulation 2022 Paths to Discovery article to learn about the CardioNerds story, mission, and values. CardioNerds Pulmonary Embolism PageCardioNerds Episode PageCardioNerds AcademyCardionerds Healy Honor Roll CardioNerds Journal ClubSubscribe to The Heartbeat Newsletter!Check out CardioNerds SWAG!Become a CardioNerds Patron! <hr class="wp-block-separator has-text-color has-vivid-cya
This episode is part of our comprehensive Decipher the Guidelines Series covering the 2025 ACC/AHA/ACEP/NAEMSP/SCAI Guideline for the Management of Patients With Acute Coronary Syndromes. The following question refers to Section 4.4 of the 2025 ACS Guidelines. The question is asked by Thomas Jefferson medical student and CardioNerds Academy Intern Dr. Grace Qiu, answered first by University of Miami cardiology fellow and member of the CardioNerds Interventional Cardiology Council Dr. Saahil Jumkhawala, and then by expert faculty Dr. Binita Shah. Dr. Binita Shah is an associate professor of medicine, interventional cardiologist, Director for research in Interventional Cardiology, and Director of the Department of Medicine Clinical Investigator Track at NYU. She is also an associate director of interventional cardiology and director of the transcatheter valve program at the VA New York Harbor Healthcare System. She was a member of the 2025 ACS Guidelines writing committee. Question #6 A 64-year-old male with a history of hypertension and dyslipidemia presents to the emergency department with crescendo angina. His ECG shows ST-segment depression in leads V4–V6, and high-sensitivity troponin levels are significantly elevated. A diagnosis of NSTE-ACS is made, and the patient is scheduled for an early invasive strategy with percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). Which of the following parenteral anticoagulants is NOT recommended for use as a standalone agent during the PCI procedure itself? A Fondaparinux B Bivalirudin C Unfractionated Heparin D Enoxaparin Answer #6 Explanation The correct answer is A. The choice of parenteral anticoagulation for a patient with Non-ST-Elevation Acute Coronary Syndrome (NSTE-ACS) undergoing Percutaneous Coronary Intervention (PCI) is governed by both efficacy in preventing ischemic events and the safety profile regarding bleeding. The following are the recommended Agents for PCI: Unfractionated Heparin (UFH): In patients with NSTE-ACS, intravenous unfractionated heparin (UFH) is useful to reduce ischemic events (Class 1, LOE C-EO). Bivalirudin: This direct thrombin inhibitor is recommended as an alternative to UFH. In patients with NSTE-ACS undergoing PCI, bivalirudin may be reasonable as an alternative to UFH to reduce bleeding and mortality (Class 2b, LOE B-R) Enoxaparin: In patients with ACS, intravenous enoxaparin may be considered as an alternative to UFH at the time of PCI to reduce ischemic events (Class 2B, LOE B) In patients with ACS, fondaparinux should not be used to support PCI because of the risk of catheter thrombosis (Class 3: Harm; LOE B-R). The primary reason is due to the risk of catheter thrombosis. Large-scale trials (notably the OASIS-5 trial) demonstrated that using fondaparinux alone during PCI led to a significantly higher rate of thrombus formation on the diagnostic and therapeutic catheters. In the OASIS-5 trial, an increase was observed in the rate of catheter-related thrombus with fondaparinux compared with enoxaparin (0.9% versus 0.4%). Similar results were observed in the OASIS-6 trial, in which a higher rate of guiding-catheter thrombosis and more coronary complications with fondaparinux were observed when used during PCI. Main Takeaway – Parenteral anticoagulation for a
This episode is part of our comprehensive Decipher the Guidelines Series covering the 2025 ACC/AHA/ACEP/NAEMSP/SCAI Guideline for the Management of Patients With Acute Coronary Syndromes. The following question refers to Section 4.3 of the 2025 ACS Guidelines. The question is asked by Thomas Jefferson medical student and CardioNerds Academy Intern Dr. Grace Qiu, answered first by Cleveland Clinic interventional and structural cardiology fellow and member of the CardioNerds Interventional Cardiology Council Dr. Eunice Dugan, and then by expert faculty Dr. Binita Shah. Dr. Binita Shah is an associate professor of medicine, interventional cardiologist, Director for research in Interventional Cardiology, and Director of the Department of Medicine Clinical Investigator Track at NYU. She is also an associate director of interventional cardiology and director of the transcatheter valve program at the VA New York Harbor Healthcare System. She was a member of the 2025 ACS Guidelines writing committee. Question #5 A 64-year-old woman with NSTE-ACS is taken to the cardiac catheterization laboratory. She is P2Y12 inhibitor-naive as she was unable to tolerate oral intake due to severe nausea and vomiting. Coronary angiography reveals a high-grade, thrombotic lesion in the mid-Right Coronary Artery. The interventionalist decides to initiate an intravenous P2Y12 inhibitor before proceeding with PCI. Which of the following is the most appropriate management strategy? A Administer Cangrelor as a 30 mcg/kg IV bolus followed by a 4 mcg/kg/min infusion for at least 2 hours or the duration of PCI, whichever is longer. B Administer Eptifibatide (GP IIb/IIIa inhibitor) as a routine double-bolus followed by an infusion to replace the need for P2Y12 inhibition. C Delay the procedure for 2 hours to allow for the administration and absorption of 600 mg of oral Clopidogrel. D Administer Cangrelor as a 180 mcg/kg bolus followed by a 2 mcg/kg/min infusion for exactly 1 hour. Answer #5 Explanation The correct answer is A. Cangrelor is the only intravenous P2Y12 inhibitor currently available. It is a direct-acting, intravenous antagonist of the P2Y12 receptor characterized by rapid and potent platelet inhibitory effects, with restoration of platelet function occurring within 1 hour of drug discontinuation. It also has a very short half-life (3–6 minutes). Among patients with ACS undergoing PCI who have not received a P2Y12 inhibitor, intravenous cangrelor may be reasonable to reduce periprocedural ischemic events (Class 2B; LOE B-R). Dosing Strategy: Bolus: 30mcg/kg IV bolus administered rapidly (under 1 minute) before PCI begins. Infusion: 4 mcg/kg/min IV infusion. Duration: The infusion must run for at least 2 hours or for the duration of the PCI, whichever is longer. Transition to Oral Therapy: Ticagrelor: 180mg can be given at any time (during or after the infusion). Prasugrel/Clopidogrel: loading dose must be given immediately after the infusion is stopped. Giving these earlier can lead to a drug-drug interaction where the Cangrelor prevents the active metabolite from binding to the receptor. In the CHAMPION PHOENIX trial, cangrelor was studied versus clopidogrel in patients undergoing PCI for acute or stable coronary syndromes. Cangrelor was administered as an intravenous bolus prior to PCI followed by an infusion for at least
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Welcome to CardioNerds, where we bring you in-depth discussions with leading experts, case reports, and updates on the latest advancements in the world of cardiology. Tune in to expand your knowledge, sharpen your skills, and become a true CardioNerd!
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